The posts below started on another Topic, but I felt it may benefit from it’s own Topic.
Do we not expect broker x CFD to be the same as the underlying except for spread differences and slippage due to speed of execution etc. There should not be wide differences else what is to stop broker x manipulating prices etc??
Yes of course, so I don’t understand what you mean GraHal? By accepting to trade derivatives assets like CFD, you already agreed to use not real market instruments and trading “against” the broker. Just compare 2 CFDs brokers on any instrument and you’ll not get the exact same OHLC values, therefore the subject to over optimization to a specific data serie (broker X) is a concern, what would be the result on broker Y?
I’m thinking aloud here, so don’t shoot me down … 🙂
The differences between the data from / used by broker x and broker y should not be so great (on the same underlying) that, for example … MA[10] Crosses over MA[50] … would occur with broker x but not occur with broker y using a 1 hour TF (for example)?
If MA[10] crosses over MA[50] occurs with broker x at 085959 then it could occur at 085958 or maybe even 090000 with broker Y??
Could difference in spreads account for above as surely the mid price should be the same?
But I guess spread can be ‘Buy side loaded’ or ‘sell side loaded’ so then mid price could be quite different??
At the extreme … the above cross may occur with broker x and then pullback and so maybe not occur at all with broker Y ?? But this would be the exception not the norm?
So an Auto System which gives good performance with broker x but poor performance with broker y (on the same underlying) must be highly optimised?
Or broker x spreads are much lower than broker y ?
Any other thoughts anyone on what could account for difference in performance between broker x and broker Y??
Lot of questions above!? 🙂